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نماذج أسئلة إختبار الهيئة للمختبرات الطبية

[size=5][align=center] [align=center]مرحبـــــــــا أخوانـي.. حبيت أنقل لكم هالنماذج من إختبارات الهيئه لقسم المختبرات ((فنيين))..وأتمنى من الجميــــــــع الإستفادهـ منها.. لإني شخصيــآ إستفدت منها كثيــــــر.. بحدود 500 ســؤال..لاتدعون

ملتقى المختبرات الطبية
إضافة رد
  #1  
قديم 05-18-2009, 02:03 PM
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فنيــة مختبــر will become famous soon enough


[size=5][align=center][align=center]مرحبـــــــــا أخوانـي..

حبيت أنقل لكم هالنماذج من إختبارات الهيئه لقسم المختبرات ((فنيين))..وأتمنى من الجميــــــــع الإستفادهـ منها..

لإني شخصيــآ إستفدت منها كثيــــــر..

بحدود 500 ســؤال..لاتدعون علــي لإنها كثيــرهـ نماذج أسئلة إختبار الهيئه..للمختبــــــــرات... biggrin.gif ...بدون إجابات ماقدرت أجاوب ع كل هالاسئله واللونها..ع

العمووم كلها كم يووم وبنزلهــا مره ثانيه مع إجاباتهــا..إنتم إقروها وخوذوا فكـــــــره عنهـا...اختبروا نفسكم بنفسكم

اللي يقدر يحل يحلها ويقارن الاجابات بعدين..المهم نزلت لكم الحين بس قسم ((الهيماتولوجــي.....البكتيريــا)) وباقي

الاقسام بنزلها بعد كم يووم.....نماذج أسئلة إختبار الهيئه..للمختبــــــــرات... wink.gif

صدقونــي مع الوقت بتتعودوون عليهـا..أبي دعواتكـــــــــم لإن إختباري مقــرب نماذج أسئلة إختبار الهيئه..للمختبــــــــرات... redface.gif


[HEMATOLOGY
1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT


7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic drugs
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin


21- Factor II of blood clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red blood cells
b- White blood cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin





34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly
d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma


54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes



60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency


65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils


71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte


72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain

73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia

78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia



84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above

88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency


89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia




90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil

91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte

92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile

93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte
d- Basophile

94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils

95- ……… promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood loss from damaged blood vessels:
a- platelets
b- WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above


96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea

97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte

98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama

99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Monocyte

100- ………… are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b- WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above

101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red blood cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia



102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above

103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40 %
b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 1-5 %

105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia

106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia




108-………………. is a multiple small , peripheral grape like purple clusters of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body

109- the blood smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above

110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above

112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- Ig M
b- Ig G
c- Ig D
d- Ig E


113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above

114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin

115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine

116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1 %
b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 20-4 %

117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid


















BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall





124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria




130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them





146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are a***ual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by A***ual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- ***ual reproduction
d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black

191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above

200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)





393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by ***ual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes

476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :
a- entrobacteria
b- bacteroides
c- brucella
d- enterococci[/align]


شارك
مشاركة في فيسبوك مشاركة في تويترمشاركة في قوقل بلص


من مواضيعي : فنيــة مختبــر
رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 3 ]
قديم 05-20-2009, 03:42 AM
صحي جديد
 

DR.UMAR will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

HEMATOLOGY

1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT


7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic drugs
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin


21- Factor II of blood clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red blood cells
b- White blood cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin





34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly
d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma


54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes



60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency


65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils


71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte


72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain

73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia

78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia



84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above

88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency


89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia




90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil

91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte

92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile

93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte
d- Basophile

94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils

95- ……… promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood loss from damaged blood vessels:
a- platelets
b- WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above


96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea

97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte

98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama

99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Monocyte

100- ………… are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b- WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above

101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red blood cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia



102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above

103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40 %
b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 1-5 %

105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia

106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia




108-………………. is a multiple small , peripheral grape like purple clusters of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body

109- the blood smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above

110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above

112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- Ig M
b- Ig G
c- Ig D
d- Ig E


113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above

114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin

115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine

116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1 %
b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 20-4 %

117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid


















BACTERIOLOGY

118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall





124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria




130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them





146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are a***ual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by A***ual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- ***ual reproduction
d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black

191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above

200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)





393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by ***ual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes

476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :
a- entrobacteria
b- bacteroides
c- brucella
d- enterococci

















CHEMISTRY

330- ………….. are substance produced by specialized cells of the body and carried by blood stream where it affect other specialized cells:
a- vitamins
b- enzymes
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones

331- …………… is a protein which catalyse one or more specific biochemical reaction and not consumed during the reaction:
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- proteins

332- ………… is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and the blood clotting factors and it’s deficiency is observed in newborn infants:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D

333- there are enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ in there physical properties:
a- vitamins
b- adjuvents
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones

334- it’s functionis to maintain adequate serum level of calcium:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D




335-the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme this type of inhibition is called:
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration

336- ……….. found in cartilage consist of a core protein to which the linear carbohydrates chain are covalently attached:
a- glycoprotein
b- proteoglycan
c- link protein
d- hyaluronic acid

337- …………… is synthesized only by micro-organism , it’s not present in plants but present in liver , it’s deficiency leads to pernicious anemia:
a- vit C
b- vit B12
c-vit B1
d- vit B2

338- the brown color of the stool is due to the presence of:
a- urobilinogen
b- urobilin
c- porphyrin
d- bilirubin

339- the degradation of heme takes place in the …………. particularly in the liver and spleen
a- reticulocytes
b- erythrocytes
c- reticuloendothelial cells
d- non of the above

340- increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the greater load of pigment and bilirubin level well rises this is called :
a- hepatogenous jaundice
b- hemolytic jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above

341- ………… plays a role in visual cycle it’s deficiency leads to night blindness, β-carotene is the major precursor of this vitamin in human:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D

342- a large percentage of the ……….. requirement in humans is supplied by intestinal bacteria:
a- biotin
b- niacin
c- folic acid
d- thiamin

343- ………….. are organic compounds required by the body in trace amount , can’t be synthesized by humans , but supplied by diet:
a- enzymes
b- vitamins
c- hormones
d- proteins

344- it facilitate the absorption of iron by reducing it to ferrus state in the stomach and it’s deficiency result in scurvy:
a- vit C
b- vit B
c- vit D
d- vit A

345- it’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue:
a- haptoglobin
b- hemoglobin
c- bilirubin
d- myoglobin





346- ………….. act as an antioxidant and it’s deficiency cause liver degeneration:
a- vit E
b- vit A
c- vit K
d- vit D

347- it’s caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of bile greatly decreased and the concentration of bilirubin in the blood rise :
a- hemolytic jaundice
b- hepatogenous jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above

348- ……… play an essential role in body metabolism , a deficiency or excess may lead to serious dearrangement of body function:
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- isoenzymes

349- …………. will interfere with the chemical determination of bilirubin , giving high variable results:
a- hemolysis
b- hemoglobin
c- vitamins
d- hormones

350- in hemolytic jaundice there will be increase ……………. in serum:
a- direct bilirubin
b- indirect bilirubin
c- total bilirubin
d- all of the above




351- the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site on the enzyme that the substrate normally occupy , this type of inhibition is called :
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration

352- regulation of blood glucose level can be achieved by :
a- hormonal mechanism
b- hepatic and renal mechanism
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above

353- insulin is a hormone secretes by :
a- α cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
b- β cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
c- suprarenal cortex
d- non of the above

354- cholesterol is a component of all cell membrane and it’s the precursor of :
a- bile acid
b- steroid hormones
c- vit D
d- all of the above

355- anti diuretic hormone ( ADH) secretion is controlled by:
a- rennin angiotensin
b- plasma osmlality
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above

356- the electrophoresis is based on differential migration of :
a- charged particles
b- uncharged particles
c- molecular weight
d- (a) & (b)




357- acid base balance is regulated by :
a- oxygen concentration
b- hydrogen ion concentration
c- nitrogen ion concentration
d- (a) & (b)

358- it’s an increase in hydrogen ion concentration of the blood:
a- acidosis
b- alkalosis
c- acid base balance
d- (a) & (b)

359- over production of acid associated with :
a- diabetes mellitus
b- lactic acidosis
c- methanol poisoning
d- all of the above

360- serum bicarbonate is decreased in:
a- respiratory acidosis
b- metabolic acidosis
c- renal tubular acidosis
d- all of the above

361- chronic deficiency in dietry calcium can lead to :
a- anemia
b- bronchial asthma
c- osteoporosis
d- non of the above

362- ………… is due to decrease blood CO2:
a- metabolic acidosis
b- respiratory acidosis
c- respiratory alkalosis
d- metabolic acidosis

363- …………. is the most important factor affecting body sodium content:
a- aldosteron secretion
b- antidiuretic hormone
c- testosterone
d- all of the above
364- haemosiderosis is :
a- increase iron store
b- decrease iron store
c- increase hemoglobin
d- decrease hemoglobin

365- if there’s a mixture of protein ( colloids) and salt
( crystalloid) they can be separated by :
a- precipitation
b- dialysis
c- chromatography
d- electrophoresis

366- the predominant cation in intracellular fluid is :
a- sodium
b- potassium
c- calcium
d- phosphorus

367- metabolic acidosis is due to :
a- failure to secret acid
b- bronchial asthma
c- loss of bicarbonate
d- (a) &(c)

368- high level of plasma ferritin may occur due to :
a- inflammatory condition
b- malignant disease
c- liver disease
d- all of the above

369- gonadal hormones estimation is important in :
a- detection of ovulation
b- assessment of amenorrhea
c- evaluation of delayed puberty
d- all of the above

370- the secretion of gonadal hormone is controlled by :
a- LH
b- FSH
c- TSH
d- (a) & (b)
371- the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the ………. of the analyte in the solution:
a- dilution
b- contamination
c- concentration
d- observation

372- the ………… contain information of any health or safety rich associated with use or exposure to hazardous chemicals:
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA

373- instraument used to measure color changes in the labs:
a- microscope
b- centrifuge
c- photometer
d- all of the above

374- the color coded signs used to identify flammable chemicals:
a- blue
b- yellow
c- white
d- red

375- quality assurance includes :
a- personal orientation
b- laboratory documentation
c- knowledge of laboratory istraumentation
d- all of the above

376- the laboratory procedure manual include:
a- patient preparation
b- specimen collection & processing
c- specimen preservation , storage & transport
d- all of the above





377- the principal of reflectance photometer
a- measure the amount of light that pass through the solution
b- measure the amount of light that the solution absorbs
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above

378- the blood cell counter include :
a- aperture impedence cell counter
b- Geiger counter
c- microscopes
d- all of the above

379- it is mession is to save lives , prevent injuries , and protect health of all workers in the lab. :
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA

380- ……………. requires 3 hours at 140 C ْ or 1 hour at 160 C ْ for complete sterilization
a- hot air oven
b- autoclave
c- filteration
d- all of the above

381- arterial blood samples are essential to do :
a- CBC
b- urea
c-blood glucose
d- blood gas analysis

382- vaccum tubes with green stopper contain:
a- EDTA
b- sodium citrate
c- heparin
c- no anticoagulant





383- serum separator tube is all of the following except:
a- contain gel that separate serum from cells during centrifugation
b- contain clot activator to speed clot formation
c- has red & black mottled top stopper
d- used for coagulation tests

384- for phlepotomy we use all of the following except:
a- the hypodermic needle & syringe
b- the vaccum tube system
c- the monolet lancets
d- the winged infusion set

385- lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with :
a- hypochlorite
b- formaldehyde
c- glutaraldehyde
d- (b) & (c)

386- any blood split in the lab should be immediately swabbed with :
a- hypochlorite
b- alcohol
c- soap
d- water

387- CBC is performed using:
a- serum
b- well mixed EDTA whole blood
c- plasma
d- non of the above

388- which tube should be filled first in blood collection:
a- tubes with anticoagulant
b- tube without anticoagulant
c- tubes for blood culture
d- non of the above






389- the monojector is designed to be used with :
a- the monolet lancet
b- tenderlett
c- tenderfoot
d- non of the above


390- the site of choice for capillary puncture in newborns is :
a- the earlobe
b- middle finger
c- the big toe
d- the lateral medial planter heel surface






























PARASITOLOGY

426- Intermediate host of Trypansom:
a- triatoma megista
b- sand fly
c- tse tse fly
d- anopheles

427- The cause of chaga's disease:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypansoma rhodesiense
c- trypansoma cruzi
d- leishmania braziliense

428- The cause of sleeping sickness:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)

429- Cause Kala- azar:
a- leishmania tropica
b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani
d- leishmania mexicana

430-cause oriental sore:
a- plasmodium ovale
b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense

431- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has the 2 nuclei that resembles eyes and 4 pairs of flagella that look like hair:
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- giardia lamblia
d- endolimax nana




432- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior flagella and a 5th forming the outer edge of a short undulating membrane:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- entameoba coli
d- endolimax nana

433- sometimes it cause metastatic infection which involve liver, lung, brain or other viscera:
a- giardia lamblia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- entameoba histolytica
d- balantidium coli

434- Intestinal ciliate:
a- entameoba histolytica
b- entameoba coli
c- giardia lamblia
d- balantidium coli

435- A***ual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:
a- anopheles
b- sand fly
c- human
c- tse tse fly

436- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :
a- triatoma megista
b- tse tse fly
c- anopheles
d- sand fly

437- Moves by pseudopods:
a- giardia lamblia
b- balantidium coli
c- entameoba histolytica
d- Trichomonas vaginalis

438- it's one of the round worms:
a- schistosoma mansoni
b- schistosoma haematobium
c- ascaris lumbricoides
d- fasciola hepatica

439- it's one of the tape worms:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- trichuris tricura
d- taenia saginata

440- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless protruding mucoid plug in each end:
a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides
b- egg of ancylostoma duodenal
c- egg of trichuris tricura
d- egg of taenia saginata

441- large oval egg ,pale yellow brown in color has a characteristic side spine & contain a fully developed
miracidium , the worm is:
a- S.mansoni
b- S. hematobium
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium

442- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has an indistinct operculum and contains unsegmented ovum:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium

443- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a thick brown radially striated wall , hooklets are present in the embryo:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium

444-oval colorless egg,flattened on one side & contains a larvae:
a- hymenelopis diminuta
b- dipylidium caninum
c- entrobius vermicularis
d- taenia saginata

445- the cause of malignant malaria:
a- plasmodium vivax
b- plasmodium ovale
c- plasmodium malaria
d- plasmodium falciparum

446- infection occur when infective filariform larvae penetrate the skin:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- fasciola hepatica
d- heterophyes heterophyes

447- ……..lives in the liver and bile ducts of sheep and cattle:
a- stronyloides stercoralis
b- schistosoma mansoni
c- fasciola hepatica
d- ancylostoma duodenal

448-segment found in stool which is white & opaque & measures 20 mm long by 6mm wide with uterus that has a central stem and more than 13 side branches on each side…the worm is :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia saginata

449- infection is by eating raw or under ****ed fish:
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium

450- …… is transmitted by eating raw or under ****ed beef:
a- heterophyes heterophyes
b- taenia saginata
c- schistosoma mansoni
d- ancylostoma duodenal



BODY FLUID

451- urine output < 400 ml/24 hours is :
a- polyuria
b- anuria
c- oligouria
d- non of the above

452- precipitation of urates takes place in:
a- acidic urine
b- alkaline urine
c- neutral urine
d- all of the above

453- it's one of the causes of persistently acidic urine:
a- urinary tract infection
b- phenylketonurea
c- excessive bicarbonate ingestion
d- excessive ingestion of soda

454- common cause of proteinuria:
a- alcoholism
b- fasting > 18 hours
c- diabetes mellitus
d- Bence- Jones proteins

455- dipstick detect acetoacetic acid & acetone which react with:
a- peroxides
b- nitroprusside
c- diazo compounds
d- indoxyl esters

456- in dipstick bilirubin reacts with :
a- nitroprusside
b- peroxides
c- indoxyl esters
d- diazo compounds




457- among the common cause of hematouria:
a- urogenital carcinoma
b- diabetes mellitus
c- heavy exercise
d- metabolic disorder

458- large number of hyaline cast indicated:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above

459- red cell casts indicates:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above

460- crystals which look like envelope :
a- triple phosphate
b- cystine
c- uric acid
d- calcium oxalate

461- Biuret test is done to determine:
a- glucose b- pentose
c- protein d- galactose

462- the 1st tube of synovial fluid is for:
a- hematology b- chemistry
c- microbiology d- microscopy

463- square plate like crystals with notched corners in synovial fluid indicate:
a- uric acid b- calcium pyrophosphate
c- cholesterol d- monosodium urate

464- abnormal forms in semen should not exceed:
a- 10 % b- 5 %
c- 25 % d- 50 %



Lab.Management

477-The process of getting things done through and with people operating in organized group toward a common goal is the
a- management
b- Organization
c- Planning
d- None of the above

478- Primary objectives in the planning are directed to
a- the laboratory as a whole
b- Increase the efficiency in the performance of the lab. test
c- Decrease the costs in the performance of the lab. test
d- All of the above

479- Forecasting needs for staff personnel means
a-Prediction in relation to the kind of technician and technologist who will be working in the lab.
b- Plan for the full utilization of efficient use of instrument
c- Plan for the full use of space in the lab.
d- None of the above

480-An organization
a- Is formed when 2 or more persons are brought together to achieve a common goal
b- Is closely related to planning
c- Involves structuring activities and functions within institutions to
achieve the goals and objects
d- all of the above

481- The real behavior and relationships of organization members usually differ from their planned behavior and relationships. It is
a- Formal organization
b- Informal organization
c- Space utilization
d- None of the above



482- The intra lab. System includes the following except
a- Calendar format
b- Histogram format
c- out of limits report sheet
d- Proficiency testing and computer program

483- The out of limits report form provides
a- Space for recording reagents changes
b- Control lot number changes
c- Serve as a general "dairy" of the test methodology
d- All of the above

484- Patient preparation, specimen collection and technical performance of lab. test are general categories of…………..
a- Planning
b- Utilization of space
c- Work flow
d- Quality control

485-floor book manual includes the following except
a- Test name
b- Sample fluid
c- Minimum volume
d- Proper procedures for collecting routine and special tests

486- Collection procedure manual involve
a- Blood collection from pediatric patients
b- Intensive care blood collection
c- Isolation techniques for lab. Personnel
d- All of the above

487-On the container and \or lab requisition
a- Patient's full name should be put
b- Hospital number should be put
c- Date of collection should be put
d- All of the above

488 Accuracy referred to the following except
a- Correctness and exactness of the test
b- Closeness of the test to the true value
c- True value determined by comparison to a standard
d- reproducibility

489- Regarding precision the following is true except
a- Reproducibility
b- Closeness of the test results to one another when using the same specimen
c- In the clinical lab it is expressed as (SD) and coefficient of variation
d- The capability of the method to detect a small amount of substance with some assurance

490- Reliability is
a- The ability of a method to measure only that substance being tested
b- The ability of the test method to maintain its accuracy despite of
extraneous circumstances
c- The ability of the method to maintain accuracy, precision and ruggedness
d- None of the above

491- …………….. This symbol in the flow chart means
a- Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Manual operation
d- Decision mod

492- This symbol in the flow chart means ( )
a-Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Direction flow
d- Document

493- Work load on which personnel requirements are usually based is influenced by
a- changes in volume
b- Test mix
c- Patient population
d- All of the above





494- The physical features of the lab. one of the measures of
a- forecasting of personnel needs
b- Assessment of space utilization
c- Time management
d- None of the above

495- If P (E) is the probability of E we may express this definition as
a- P (E) = m\N
b- P (E) = N\m
c- P (E) = m X N
d- None of the above

496- When a test indicates a positive status when the true status is negative it is called
a- positive test
b- False positive test
c- Negative test
d- False negative test

497- The specificity of a test
a- The probability of a positive test results or (presence of the symptoms) given the presence of the disease
b- The probability of a negative test results or (absence of the symptoms) given the absence of the disease
c- a and b
d-None of the above

498- The largest collection of entities for which we have an interest at a particular time is called
a- Population
b- Sample
c- Data
d-All of the above

499- A sample is
a- A part of a population
b- The whole population
c- Endless population
d- None of the above

500- If we have 100 students and they are ranked by age beginning with the 4th student, every tenth student is chosen (the student no. 4 then 14 and 24 and so on) this type of sample is called
a- Systemically selected sample
b- A stratified selected sample
c- Simple random sample
d- Cluster selected sample

501-A point estimate is
a- A single numerical value used to estimate the corresponding population parameter
b- Tow numerical values defining a range of values include the parameter being estimated
c- a and b
d- None of the above

502-A statistical inference is
a- A procedure by which we reach a conclusion about population based on the information obtained from the sample drawn from it
b- The cause behind estimation in the health science fields
c- Calculated data from the data of the sample that are approximation of the corresponding parameter
d- None of the above

503- Estimator is
a- the rule that tells us how to compute the single value which is called estimate
b- Two numerical values defining the range of values
c- a, b
d- None of the above

504 The table which shows the way in which values of the variables are distributed among the specified class interval is called
a- Relative frequency
b- Ordered array
c- Frequency table
c- None of the above


505- The following are the ages of 5 patients seen in the emergency room in certain day 35, 30, 55, 40, 25 years the mean of their ages is
a- 37 years
b- 30 years
c- 39 years
d- 40 years

506- A mathematical tool designed to facilitate complex clinical decision in which many variables must be considered spontaneously is called
a- Reference value
b- Decision analysis
c- Quality assurance
d- None of the above
ROMA KING, شخبات89 و د: السيد فرحات معجبون بهذا.
DR.UMAR غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 4 ]
قديم 05-20-2009, 05:58 AM
 

فنيــة مختبــر will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

[align=center]يعطيييييييييييك العافيه...

بس بنزلها بالاجابات...ان شاءالله..
[/align]
من مواضيع : فنيــة مختبــر
فنيــة مختبــر غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 5 ]
قديم 06-05-2009, 12:18 AM
صحي جديد
 

نبض المختبر will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

.


يعطيك الف عافيه ماقصرتي

بغيت اسالك اختي اختبرتي اختبار الهيئه ولا لسه
واذا اختبرتي ياليت تعطيني صورة واضحه عنه ,
heba jalal معجبون بهذا.
نبض المختبر غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 6 ]
قديم 07-17-2009, 07:07 PM
صحي جديد
 

سلطانـــ will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

مشكوره ما قصرتي والله يعطيك العافيه
سلطانـــ غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 7 ]
قديم 07-17-2009, 09:22 PM
صحي متمرس
 

فوآز will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

بارك الله فيك آختي الكريمــه .

تم نسخها وطباعتها
من مواضيع : فوآز
فوآز غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 8 ]
قديم 07-25-2009, 09:46 AM
صحي جديد
 

المنتحر will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

بصراحه مجهود جبار تشكرين عليه ..

انا الحمد لله اختبرت اختبار الهيئه وكان يعتمد بشكل كبير على المايكرو والبارا .. والهيماتولوجي
من مواضيع : المنتحر
المنتحر غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 9 ]
قديم 07-26-2009, 09:25 AM
صحي جديد
 

ابوهاشم will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

هذه الاسئله ومن يمشي على شاكلتها لا تكن اسئله صادره من الهيئه فالهيئه وكما هو معلوم لدينا ولدى الكثير هدفها اسمى وارقى ان تضع مثل هذه الاسئله لان هدفها وكما يعلم الجميع مادي بحت فكل اهدافها هو جمع المال باي طريق كانت
من مواضيع : ابوهاشم
ابوهاشم غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
  رقم المشاركة : [ 10 ]
قديم 07-26-2009, 02:05 PM
صحي نشط
 

رايق و متضايق will become famous soon enough
افتراضي

الله يعطيك العافية


مجهود رائع


واسمحيلي اضيف بعض الإختبارات


أفادتني كثير


تقبلي مروري
من مواضيع : رايق و متضايق
رايق و متضايق غير متواجد حالياً   رد مع اقتباس
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مواقع النشر (المفضلة)

الكلمات الدليلية (Tags)
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